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  1. #1
    BOA Lifetime Member
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    If a valuation is met, it doesnt mean the club have to sell to the team meeting it.

    If he had permission to join anyone, why was the move blocked? Because he didnt have permission to join anyone.

    Chelsea seem to buy players cos other teams want them and nothing gets said.

    When it comes to man u alot of ppl seem to have their blinkers on
    Ure not mad enough, u don\'t belong in this house

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  2. #2
    Ultimate Freak
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    Madrid paid over £8 million so Utd got a better deal anyway..

  3. #3
    Ultimate Freak
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    Quote Originally Posted by djfase View Post

    When it comes to man u alot of ppl seem to have their blinkers on

    Deffo - people just dont like Utd and anything like this will twist it in their heads till they find a way of making it an attack on United.



    The point on this is that the letter did not supercede or replace the contract. It comes down to the finer points of contract law - and unless a letter explicitly states that it is an amendment to the contract then it cannot be considered as such, whether signed or not.


    Therefore, United sending his agent a letter stating that they would sell him for a specified fee is not an amendment to the contract unless it states that in the letter that it is a contract amendment, in this case inserting the kind of sell on clause in Obafemi Martins contract.

    As none of us on here have seen the letter then its all speculation, but I'm sure after the Tevez situation that the FA will be keen to stick to the letter of the law on these issues so as not to get their fingers burnt, and as noone anywhere, including Heinze's agent, has ever stated that the letter did contain explicit statements amending the contract, merely that it was signed by a United official, then surely the assumption should be that this was the case, and not that the FA are being bias.


    To make any other assumption is basically to make one based on no evidence what so ever.
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